/sci/ - Science & Math

Can someone explain how it's scientifically possible for 2 completely different and isolated cultures to develop the exact same writing system representing the same sounds with the same characters?

As a Jew that learned Japanese I was absolutely shocked and had to look up history to make sure Jews didn't influence the Japanese language but there's barely anything on that topic besides this pseudo-science wikipedia article.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Japanese-Jewish_common_ancestry_theory

Anyone have any hypothesis for what could cause something like this to happen. Is it just pure coincidence? If so then how minuscule is the chance of this happening?

Otherwise is there some explanation for 2 civilizations to develop the exact same writing system with the same sounds independently from each other?