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4215843 No.4215843 [Reply] [Original]

The formulation of universality within Kant's categorical imperative states that one should only act on a maxim that they will to become a universal law. If one should only act on a maxim that they will that everyone else act on it (i.e. it would be in their self-interest if the maxim was universalized), doesn't the categorical imperative become hypothetical itself. Is this the fatal flaw within Kant's theory?

>> No.4215861

bump

>> No.4215884

Shy would that make it hypothetical?
The thing is that you don't actually have a choice, it's reasonable and that's why you have to do it

>> No.4215953

>>4215884
Than doesn't conflict with human autonomy if it isn't freely imposed?

>> No.4215961

>>4215953
*then *it

>> No.4216048

>>4215953
For Kant, humans are reasonable creatures, so no.

>> No.4216085

>>4216048
I guess. So what he is basically getting at is: We should only act on a maxim that would be rational and non-contradicting if universalized, because reason is the foundation of a good will, which is the only thing good in itself.

>> No.4216149
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4216149

Kant's Critique of Practical Reason and Groundwork for the Metaphysic of Morals expounded a moral system based on what the categorical imperative, the best known version of which is: "Act as if the maxim of your action were to become, by an act of will, a universal law of nature."[17] Williams argued against the categorical imperative in his paper "Persons, character and morality". Morality should not require us to act "in abstract of character," as though we are not who we are in the circumstances in which we presently find ourselves. We should not have to take an impartial view of the world, or be necessarily expected to cast aside our individuality

wikipedia but so what