>>14583244
>muh law of non-contradiction
All it does is presuppose that language paradox necessarily contains a proof. But why is the logic of language a finality? If not, all this would mean is that there are things which language cannot express. And is this necessarily wrong? Is language's power necessarily infinite? Is the world made of language, logic, or cause and effect? Or are they illusory, are they just a dream of the weakness of the senses?