Last time there was a thread about this someone posted a video debunking Taleb's points about IQ. The video said IQ in fact does have a positive relationship with income and net worth and that the paper Taleb cites shows that. But what I never got about that video is that, even if the median IQ does relate to the median net worth, does that really prove Taleb wrong? Is the median really that useful if the variation is as wide as the paper also says? It seems to me like the guy in the video made a mistake, or am I wrong? Please explain to this confused anon