/lit/ - Literature

>>12066898
>Afaik there is no historical example of a people using two completely different languages for reading and writing for normal use
Anons already mentioned Latin in the middle ages. Some of the smaller Germanic kingdoms in the post-Roman world didn't write in their own tongues. The Suevi and Burgundian languages are unattested in writing, everything produced in their lands (what little of it there was) was written in Latin.
Additionally, a lot of the Near Eastern conquerors in the bronze age would conquer a city and continue to write in Akkadian/Sumerian/Aramaic, but barely use their own in writing. The Kassites and Amorites come to mind. I don't think they ever bothered to have scribes apply cuneiform to their languages beyond names and a couple of words.