/lit/ - Literature

why did he do it? why did he kill so many innocents?

So Hitler was a big fan of Schopenhauer and said that Nietzsche was “useless” for him. But Schopenhauer encouraged purging the will through asceticism and philosophy, while it seems like Hitler embraced the Will as a darwinian evolutionary principle and merely identified with the Race rather than just “life” or the human species as a whole. Why did he prefer to convert Schopenhauer into a political system when Schopenhauer would clearly be opposed to it instead of just using Nietzsche who is already part political by nature? No tranny seething or /pol/cel schizophrenia please.